I didn't respond to Uncle Ken's post yesterday because I wasn't sure that I understood what he was trying to say, and I'm still not sure 24 hours later. Okay, most new inventions would not have been invented if someone else had not previously invented something else. A rich person or corporation frequently doesn't need to invent something they want because it has already been invented and they can just buy it. How does that lead us to the conclusion that all this stuff should be public property? Even if it was public property, would that guarantee that it never would be used against us? For that matter, how is it being used against us now? Most new things benefit some people more than others, and some new things cause hardship for some people, so I guess it depends on what you mean by "us".
That's all I've got so far.
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